Why does the notion of freewill have to be 'absolute', in the sense of
'either there is, or there isn't'? - aren't these kinds of dualities exactly
what Pirsig (and everyone's aunt) was trying to address?
ppl
----- Original Message -----
From: "Diana McPartlin" <diana@hongkong.com>
To: <moq_discuss@moq.org>
Sent: 06 February 2000 05:14
Subject: Re: RE: Re : MD Free will & SOM
> Richard & MD
>
> Richard wrote:
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