Erin,
A correction: our grammar is subject/predicate based, not subject/object
based. The grammar fulfills the general pragmatic function of first
stating the topic (or subject) to be discussed, and then saying
something about it (the comment or predicate). (In other words,
different meanings of the word "subject" (and "object").)
But on philosophical subjects and objects, I read somewhere that the
first philosophic use of the terms "subjective" and "objective" (or
there Greek equivalents) was among the Stoics, i.e., post-Aristotle, and
read somewhere else (I need a better filing system) that the locus of
the two switched between medieval times and ours, that is, the objective
was ideational, the subjective phenomenal.
And, of course, my oft-mentioned Barfield gives a well-argued thesis
contrary to your thoughts about Homer having any concepts like "subject"
and "object", and couldn't have, since consciousness didn't evolve into
subject/object form until later.
- Scott
Erin Noonan wrote:
> Our whole grammar depends on 'subject's and 'objects" but
> volition is more of a 'nuance meaning'.
> I think it is unclear whether Artistotle had the concept
> of volition without the exact term.
> It reminds me of when there isn't an exact translation
> for a word in a foreign language. To explain this word
> sometimes people will give a short anecdote to what this
> word means. The person gets the word without having a term
> for it. Do they have that concept? I don't know, I can
> see how you would argue both ways.
>
> the subject and object is more then just nuance terms to me
> they are how our brain is cutting up reality.
>
> Although I am thinking what you say is true it still just
> doesn't suprise me that Homer doesn't use these terms.
> How many modern novels of fiction use those terms in their
> writing? I guess i still see it just being an implicit assumption
> that doesn't really get talked about until modern day fields
> that exam this assumption.
>
> erin
>
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