RE: MD Reply to Paul's Notes on Sam's Essay [Part 1]

From: Paul Turner (paul@turnerbc.co.uk)
Date: Mon Jan 10 2005 - 20:31:30 GMT

  • Next message: Paul Turner: "RE: MD Reply to Paul's Notes on Sam's Essay [Part 2]"

    Hi Matt, Sam

    I've chopped up the reply I posted earlier, because I think it was too
    big for the list server, and I have made a couple of changes. So even if
    the original post turns up, please read these two instead.

    ---------------------------------------------------

    A Kundert post! An unexpected pleasure. I'd better get my textbooks out.

    Matt said:
    Paul's dismissive denials of Pirsig's involvement with Kantian problems
    I think hinge on calling Sam out on a largely misplaced genetic fallacy.

    Paul:
    Sam's argument, as I understand it, is --

    1. Schleiermacher reacted to and retained the Kantian distinction
    between noumena (things-in-themselves) and phenomena (things as they
    appear).

    "[The Kantian problematic] immediately brought forth a response, which,
    whilst retaining the Kantian epistemology, argued that in certain
    circumstances it was possible to have a 'pure' experience, i.e. to
    experience the 'noumena'. This was the Romantic movement..."

    "In the development of the Romantic understanding, a key thinker is the
    theologian Friedrich Schleiermacher..."

    2. James derived his mysticism from Schleiermacher, and therefore
    retained the Kantian epistemology.

    "It is William James' version of mysticism, derived from Schleiermacher,
    which has dominated the 20th century investigations....let us call it
    the "Modern synthesis""

    3. Pirsig is conceptually shaped by Schleiermacher via James and has
    therefore retained the "modern synthesis," and therefore Kant's
    epistemology.

    "For the links between the MoQ and Schleiermacher's project seem
    profound, even down to some of the language used. Is it accurate to
    describe the MoQ as simply a redescription of Schleiermacher's scheme,
    that is, is not Dynamic Quality merely a Kantian 'pure experience', and
    the levels of Static Quality merely a redescription of phenomena? If
    not, why not? This is not to suggest a direct borrowing, only to point
    out that Pirsig's work - probably via William James - has inherited a
    conceptual shape from Schleiermacher..."

    My counter-argument is that (3) is not true (and I'm not so sure about
    (2) but that is irrelevant). What is misplaced about that argument? I
    thought Sam's argument and my counter were pretty straight-forward.
    Perhaps Sam can point out where I should have read between the lines or
    where I have missed something glaringly obvious here.

    Matt continues:
    As I've said, I think Paul's reply consisted mainly in denials of
    Pirsig's
    involvement in Kantian problems. To me, this all reminds me of a far
    off
    debate I was engaged in with DMB. DMB suggested that my critiques of
    Pirsigian mysticism (which parrallel Sam's) completely missed the boat
    because mysticism has nothing to do with epistemology. I read Paul's
    reply
    as amounting to the same thing.

    Paul:
    Well you got that wrong. Saying that mysticism is nothing to do with
    epistemology wasn't my argument at all. I am saying that:

    a) Pirsig rejects the basic propositions of *Kantian* epistemology.

    b) Pirsig was influenced by Northrop and Oriental philosophy as much as,
    if not more than, Kant and hardly at all by James. So to ignore this
    when you are making a case for profound conceptual inheritance is a big
    mistake.

    Matt said:
      Mysticism has nothing to do with
    epistemology, so it has nothing to do with Descartes or Kant or anything

    else like it in the West. At the time of my debate with DMB, Sam
    rejoined
    to DMB that, though mysticism may not be epistemology, it may have
    epistemological consequences, i.e., the _claims_ made on behalf of
    mysticism
    may have epistemological status. I think this is right and I see the
    continued denials that Pirsigian philosophy runs into the problems of
    the
    West as denials that Pirsig has to do epistemology, as denying that he
    has
    to answer the skeptic.

    Paul:
    I have not denied, in the response to Sam or at any time, that Pirsig
    has to do epistemology. Neither have I denied that mystical claims have
    epistemological status. Nor does Pirsig, who, if you recall, states that
    the MOQ subscribes to empiricism:

    "Most empiricists deny the validity of any knowledge gained through
    imagination, authority, tradition or purely theoretical reasoning. They
    regard fields such as art, morality, religion, and metaphysics as
    unverifiable. The MOQ varies from this by saying that the values of art
    and morality and even religious mysticism are verifiable, and that in
    the past they have been excluded for metaphysical reasons, not empirical
    reasons." [LILA p.113]

    Furthermore, as Northrop points out, pure empiricism and mysticism start
    from the same point with respect to knowledge.

    "Pure fact may be defined as that which is known by immediate
    apprehension alone. It is that portion of knowledge which remains when
    everything depending upon inference from the immediately apprehended is
    rejected.

    Strictly speaking, as has been previously noted, we can say nothing
    about pure fact, since the moment we put in words what it is, we have
    *described fact* rather than merely observed fact. Nevertheless, we can
    use words to denote it, providing we realize that these words are
    concepts which require us to find in the immediacy of our undescribed
    experience, what the words mean.

    But to recognize this is to learn a great deal about the character of
    pure fact. Words point it out; by themselves they do not convey it. This
    means that pure fact must be immediately experienced to be known. At
    least its elementary constituents cannot be conveyed by symbols to
    anyone who has not experienced them. But to say this is to affirm that
    pure fact is ineffable in character. For the ineffable is that which
    cannot be said, but can only be shown, and even then only to one who
    immediately experiences it.

    Furthermore, since ineffability is the defining property of the
    mystical, it follows that the purely factual, purely empirical,
    positivistic component in knowledge is the mystical factor in knowledge.
    The pure empiricists are the mystics of the world, as the Orientals, who
    have tended to restrict knowledge to the immediately experienced,
    clearly illustrate." [Northrop, The Logic of the Sciences and the
    Humanities, p.39-40]

    I can almost see you reaching for your Sellars and Quine quotes...but
    before you do, Northrop is not saying that 'pure facts' are objects and
    that words point to them. He is talking about the largely indeterminate
    immediacy of sensation which is constantly there. Tying this back to
    Pirsig, a pure fact would be the negative aesthetic value in the hot
    stove example. Feel free to argue with that statement but I just wanted
    to clarify my use of this quote by Northrop without you having the
    context of the whole book.

    Matt said:
     But as long as Pirsig's philosophy maintains a
    traditional metaphysical dichotomy, that between appearance and reality,
    he
    has to answer the skeptic, and so is forced into the Kantian
    problematic. Naturally, the denial of having to answer the skeptic,
    though, is only the
    first step of denial. The second step is to then deny that Pirsig
    maintains
    an appearance/reality distinction. It is these twin denials that I
    think
    facile and for which I will run through my long standing argument.

    As Sam said, this all revolves around the notion of "pure experience."
    "Pure experience," or "unmediated experience," is unintelligible without
    its
    counterpart "unpure experience," or "mediated experience." The
    distinction
    between unmediated and mediated experience is Pirsig's distinction
    between
    Dynamic and static Quality and it is also the distinction that has
    traditionally been used to describe the appearance/reality distinction.

    Paul:
    I think this is a gross simplification and also incorrect. As I pointed
    out to Sam, pure 'undifferentiated' experience is not at all the same
    proposition as pure experience of an 'already presumed to exist'
    thing-in-itself. That Kant and Pirsig mean the same thing by 'pure
    experience' is, I believe, a flawed premise.

    Matt said:
    I have been told time and time again that this distinction is
    _descriptive_
    and not normative, unlike the appearance/reality distinction, and so
    does
    not need an epistemology. This line of defense is essentially what all
    the
    other particular ones boil down to, but it will not work because Pirsig
    himself dissolves the distinction between descriptive and normative uses
    by
    saying that "values are reality." He is in effect saying that all
    descriptions are normative.

    Paul:
    This, taken from the Copleston annotations, is what Pirsig says about
    appearances and reality:

    ---------------------------------------------------------
    Copleston: Reality for Bradley is one. The splintering of reality into
    finite things connected by relations belongs to the sphere of
    appearance.

    Pirsig: Which the MOQ calls "static patterns of value." The word
    "appearance" seems to suggest these static patterns are unreal. The MOQ
    does not make this suggestion.

    Copleston: But to say of something that it is appearance is not to deny
    that it exists. 'What appears, for that sole reason, most indubitably
    is; and there is no possibility of conjuring its being away from it.'
    Further, inasmuch as they exist, appearances must be comprised within
    reality; they are real appearances.

    Pirsig: Here he comes close to an oxymoron. "Appearance" is a poor word
    for reality.

    ----------------------------------------------------------

    You see, something can only "appear" to be something which it is "really
    not" when it is "really something else". But the whole idea of "really
    being something else" is based on the (Ancient Greek) presumption that
    there is a world of real independent things to which perceptions are
    merely apparent. The something else, in the case of the MOQ, is no
    "thing" at all. Therefore, any "thing" that you experience is precisely
    and no more or less than whatever you experience it as. There is no
    'deep' reality.

    Continued in part 2

    MOQ.ORG - http://www.moq.org
    Mail Archives:
    Aug '98 - Oct '02 - http://alt.venus.co.uk/hypermail/moq_discuss/
    Nov '02 Onward - http://www.venus.co.uk/hypermail/moq_discuss/summary.html
    MD Queries - horse@darkstar.uk.net

    To unsubscribe from moq_discuss follow the instructions at:
    http://www.moq.org/md/subscribe.html



    This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Mon Jan 10 2005 - 20:34:35 GMT