From: ian glendinning (psybertron@gmail.com)
Date: Sun Oct 09 2005 - 11:27:29 BST
Hi Bo and the rest,
Just one point in here that focusses on a key problem of definition
for me (and the reason I agree with you about the problem, but not a
statement of its solution)
Bo, you said.
In the MOQ Aristotle's "rationality" isn't exactly scrapped but
degraded from the metaphysical throne to the highest static level.
I say
I agree "Aristotelian Rationality" is degraded, but that it becomes
just one SPV in the intellectual level (approximately) clearly not the
highest for all time ever, BUT, what I say is "Rationality" per se is
extended / improved to become the MoQ itself (approximately).
Why leave rationality imprisoned in an ancient first attempt, let's
not throw out rationality itself with the bathwater. I think our
difference is again (ref Scott and Sam) just linguistic - what we are
using "the word" rationality for, nothing more. The two approximations
are the things I'd really like to debate, and agree terms afterwards.
Ian
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