Re: MD Rhetoric

From: David M (davidint@blueyonder.co.uk)
Date: Thu Oct 13 2005 - 22:56:21 BST

  • Next message: ian glendinning: "Re: MD Rhetoric"

    Hi guys

    is there a distinction between
    value-experience that is undeniablein quality: colour/pain/pleasure, etc
    and that which we cut by choice to handle sq-patterns?

    DM

    ----- Original Message -----
    From: "ian glendinning" <psybertron@gmail.com>
    To: <moq_discuss@moq.org>
    Sent: Monday, October 10, 2005 5:55 PM
    Subject: Re: MD Rhetoric

    > Matt, DMB,
    > I can't comment on the Hayes source, but I have a suggestion ..
    >
    > When you say Matt (of DMB) "It boggles my mind to think that one can
    > have value at the heart of it all without valuing."
    >
    > Is this not just terminology again. DMB is using valuing / judging as
    > post-immediate-experience intellectual processes, but he is using
    > value as the more immediate experience before any active valuing.
    >
    > Actively (dynamically) experienced value, not actively valued value.
    >
    > Just a suggestion.
    > Ian
    >
    > On 10/10/05, Matt Kundert <pirsigaffliction@hotmail.com> wrote:
    >> DMB,
    >>
    >> DMB said:
    >> This is why I think Pirsig and Hayes ARE saying the same thing. They're
    >> both
    >> talking about an experience in which judgement is absent. I would even go
    >> so
    >> fat as to say that taking the "undifferentiated aesthetic continuum", the
    >> "pure sensation" or "immeditate experience" as a reference to some kind
    >> of
    >> "valuing" or "judging" is to inappropriately let SOM's subjective self
    >> creep
    >> back into the conversation.
    >>
    >> Matt:
    >> I'm actually very surprised by this. I think the reading of the hot
    >> stove
    >> example you just gave is totally wrong. I actually wonder what Paul and
    >> Anthony think of your most recent writings about Hayes and Pirsig. Up
    >> until
    >> a week ago, I thought everyone, even me, agreed on Pirsig's central
    >> insight.
    >> And not only that, you appear to think what you're saying is normal and
    >> not a radical departure from typical readings of Pirsig. I just can't
    >> believe any one impressed by Pirsig would say the above. The only thing
    >> I
    >> can really say is, Why did Pirsig call the ultimate reality Quality
    >> (which
    >> he uses interchangeably with Value) if what you say is true? It boggles
    >> my
    >> mind to think that one can have value at the heart of it all without
    >> valuing. Touching the stove is not a neutral impression, as you would
    >> have
    >> it, its a negative experience, a low-Quality situation, as Pirsig says in
    >> the very passage in question.
    >>
    >> DMB said:
    >> If the four of us were in a room together, then you would be in the
    >> minority
    >> [about the utility of "pure sensation"], but when it comes to the world
    >> of
    >> philosophy, I think Hayes, Pirsig and I are part of a tiny minority.
    >>
    >> Matt:
    >> I don't know about that. Pure sensations, in one form or another, were
    >> very
    >> fashionable after Locke, particularly at the beginning of this century.
    >> I
    >> don't know if they're "in" now, but I don't think they're as rare as you
    >> seem to think.
    >>
    >> After my little dialogue between X and Y, I said:
    >> if the conversation goes anything like that, then the user of the
    >> distinction is, to quote X, "in trouble." The reason Y's in trouble is
    >> because "adequacy" only comes into play if you are trying to _represent_
    >> something already there (i.e. experience or reality). That's
    >> representationalism to a T. And if you have representationalism, as you
    >> tacitly agreed to earlier, then you have the appearance/reality
    >> distinction.
    >> If Y doesn't say adequate, and can't really think of a replacement
    >> purpose
    >> for keeping it around, then that's a good reason for thinking that the
    >> distinction has outlived its usefulness.
    >>
    >> DMB said:
    >> What's the purpose of making a distinction between divided and undivided
    >> reality? ... There's more than one reason, more than one purpose, but I
    >> suppose the main reasons for making this distinction is "to explain
    >> Indian
    >> mysticism". ( page 109) "with the identification of static and Dynamic as
    >> the fundamental division of the world, Phaedrus felt that some kind of
    >> goal
    >> had been reached. This first division of the MOQ now coverd the spectrum
    >> of
    >> experience from primitive mysticism to quantum mechanics." (page 120)
    >> ...
    >> But I think its pretty clear that static/Dynamic split grew out of the
    >> desire to create a system that does not exclude mysticism the way SOM
    >> does,
    >> or even the way a classic/romantic split would. Its only a little bit of
    >> an
    >> exaggeration to say that the whole point and purpose of the MOQ is to
    >> create
    >> a system which does not dismiss enlightenment as some kind of brain fart
    >> or
    >> crazy platypus. I seem to recall that he said something about values and
    >> morals too, but its pretty clear mysticism is central to the whole
    >> project.
    >>
    >> Matt:
    >> Thing is, I'm not dismissing mystic enlightenment at all "as some kind of
    >> brain fart or crazy platypus." I am saying that _one_ way to describe it
    >> is
    >> as a neuron firing (if you're saying it _can't_ be so described, then you
    >> are committing the mistake of "insisting on a particular description"
    >> that
    >> you denied you were doing earlier). Another way is as "pure sensation."
    >> And there are many other ways. What I'm saying is that "pure sensation"
    >> is
    >> not a good description for epistemological purposes. You appear to be
    >> saying that we _need_ to keep it no matter what, otherwise we'll be
    >> excluding "mysticism the way SOM does." You say, "The distinction
    >> [between
    >> divided and undivided reality] is made to include a category of
    >> experiences
    >> that were previously excluded, to bring in a whole range of human
    >> experiences and put them on the philosophical table for consideration."
    >> You
    >> are saying that these experiences were there, but Western philosophy was
    >> just rejecting them, ignoring them. But how can you say that without the
    >> word "adequacy"? You think Pirsig is better because he more _adequately_
    >> describes our experience, he describes the _whole_ range rather than just
    >> part, he doesn't ignore certain sections of it. You don't want to say
    >> that,
    >> as when you say, "I don't think I'm talking about 'adequacy' because I'm
    >> not
    >> trying to 'represent' something already there," but you _are_ trying to
    >> represent something "already there"---the range of human experiences that
    >> the West leaves off the philosophical table. So as far as I can see you
    >> haven't yet given me a replacement purpose for "adequate" that keeps you
    >> well away from epistemology and the appearance/reality distinction, the
    >> need
    >> to answer the skeptic.
    >>
    >> Matt
    >>
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