Re: MD Rhetoric

From: david buchanan (dmbuchanan@hotmail.com)
Date: Sun Oct 16 2005 - 19:26:01 BST

  • Next message: David M: "Re: MD Rhetoric"
  • Next message: David M: "Re: MD Rhetoric"

    Howdy MOQers:

    David M said:
    is not valuing-in-itself as you say not another word for causality, I am
    starting to think that is the case and is what we are talking about
    regarding undifferentiated quality....

    dmb says:
    I don't know what "valuing-in-itself" is, but I would say that the MOQ
    replaces causality with value so that we say "B values pre-condition A"
    rather than saying "A causes B." Some have suggested that this is merely a
    linguistic shift designed to make values applicable at the inorganic level,
    which is brimming over with casual laws and causal relations. But I think
    there's more to it than that. These laws are usually construed in such a way
    that we get the impression of a physical universe that's utterly brain-dead
    and deterministic. By contrast, formulations such as "B values pre-condition
    A" gives the impression of a universe driven by desire, a universe that
    yearns rather than obeys, one that evolves rather than merely unfolds
    according to unbreakable laws. And of course this alternative picture of the
    physical universe goes along quite nicely with human experience, where we
    are not caused to behave or believe things so much as we are led forward by
    dim apprehensions of we know not what - as my anthropomorphization so
    clearly indicates.

    Matt replied to David M:
    Yeah, that's the way it appears to be working to a certain extent, but the
    problem I have with saying that is that I don't think we can call it
    "valuing" without mucking around with the problems I've been trying to
    illustrate, or at least making a distinction between the two types of
    valuing seems to reinstitue the problems the introduction of "valuing" as
    the master concept was supposed to avoid. For instance, you reference
    Passmore's book in the other post, how "traditional empiricism assumes that
    we can make a clear distinction between what we experience and the value or
    importance of that experience" and Heidegger, Pirsig, and DMB are trying to
    challenge that distinction. This is exactly the problem. I've been arguing
    that Pirsig's introduction of Quality is designed to eliminate that
    distinction, but his reliance on the distinction between pre- and
    post-intellectual experience resurrects that distinction and that DMB's
    recent formulation of that distinction (with the use of "pure sensation")
    brings out that resurrection explicitly.

    dmb says:
    I'm confused. Its seems that I have been "trying to challange that
    distinction" and "resurrect that distinction" at the same time. Maybe I
    wouldn't be so full of contradictions if I understood what the traditional
    empiricists meant by it and why Heidegger was in the mood to eliminate it.
    Despite my ignorance on this point, it seems reasonable to assume that the
    traditional empiricists were operating within a SOM framework while Pirsig
    isn't. So even without knowing what this distinction is supposed to do, it
    still seems pretty unlikely that this SOM distinction can be directly
    translated into the MOQ context or otherwise equated with the DQ/sq
    distinction. I suspect that this traditional distinction is rendered
    irrelevant or otherwise dissolved in the MOQ, but its only a guess at this
    point. And if I had to venture a guess at this point...

    To say that "creative judgements" and "static patterns" of interpretation
    are absent in the "pre-intellectual experience" is NOT to say that value or
    quality is absent in that "primary empirical reality". In the hot stove
    example we see that the direct experience of low quality is quite real and
    quite compelling even before the creative judgements about stoves and rump
    roasts can even begin. We love that new song before we can give any kind of
    reason or assign any kind of merit. So the distnction between DQ and sq in
    these cases is between an experience in which value is sensed directly and
    an experience mediated by the conceptual forms of one's culture and life. So
    it seems that there is no place in the MOQ for a value-free experience. Its
    an impossibility in the MOQ. But there is a distinction between direct and
    mediated experience, between Dynamic and static reality.

    I don't see how that fits into the traditional empiricists' distinction,
    which presumably refers to the conscious and deliberate evaluations and
    assessments of subjective experience in an objective reality, rather than
    the unconscious and habitual static interpretations that we automatically
    preform all day long. Presumably, they were operating with metaphysical
    assumptions.

    Thanks.
    dmb

    _________________________________________________________________
    Express yourself instantly with MSN Messenger! Download today - it's FREE!
    http://messenger.msn.click-url.com/go/onm00200471ave/direct/01/

    MOQ.ORG - http://www.moq.org
    Mail Archives:
    Aug '98 - Oct '02 - http://alt.venus.co.uk/hypermail/moq_discuss/
    Nov '02 Onward - http://www.venus.co.uk/hypermail/moq_discuss/summary.html
    MD Queries - horse@darkstar.uk.net

    To unsubscribe from moq_discuss follow the instructions at:
    http://www.moq.org/md/subscribe.html



    This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Sun Oct 16 2005 - 21:21:41 BST