Re: MD The SOL fallacy was the intelligence fallacy (was

From: Scott Roberts (jse885@localnet.com)
Date: Thu Oct 27 2005 - 05:23:45 BST

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    Bo,

    In your response to my post you ignored my Barfieldian comments, which
    basically means that you are not allowing me to make my case. Unfortunately,
    I cannot include the full argumentation that Barfield provides (it took him
    a book, albeit a short one, to do it, and so it would take me). All I can do
    is relate his conclusions, and point out that if one accepts them, then
    significant parts of SOL (and the MOQ) become untenable.

    As I understand it, you are saying that though SOM did not appear as clearly
    "subject-object metaphysics" until Descartes, the dualities of Greek
    metaphysics were, so to speak, incipient SOM, that they set up the dualities
    that turned into SOM. And you claim that the MOQ finally breaks this
    pattern.

    First, a remark on this supposed break. I don't see how the MOQ has broken
    this pattern, if SOM is characterized the way you have (that is, based on
    the Greek dualities). I see no difference between Aristotle's form/substance
    division and Pirsig's dynamic/static division except that Aristotle placed
    creativity on the form side, and Pirsig on the dynamic (formless) side. A
    significant difference, I admit, but still a footnote to Plato. So why isn't
    the MOQ also in the Western, SOM, tradition?

    But that is not the main point I want to make.

    Basically, Barfield would reject your contention that ancient and medieval
    philosophy was incipient SOM. The philosophy that developed into SOM was
    nominalism (which began to be taken seriously in the 14th century). Prior to
    that, though there was a categorization into soul and body (along with many
    other categorizations), that was no more fundamental than the MOQ's
    categorization into levels of SQ. Knowledge was not a mind separated from
    nature and observing nature and coming up with intellectual patterns about
    nature, rather it was participation between mind and nature. From a SOM
    (modern) point of view, all this is more SOM-like theorizing. That is, it is
    assumed that pre-modern observation was the same as it is today, and that
    participation was just another intellectual pattern about mind and nature.
    Barfield argues that that was not the case, rather that the participation
    the ancients and medievals talked about was what they experienced, a dying
    stage of the original participation of pre-intellectual humanity.

    Nominalism arose because this participation died out. It could not have
    arisen until that happened. With nominalism, and only then, was intellect
    experienced as strictly a human mental faculty. Then, and only then, could
    SOM arise. Then, and only then, would a philosophy that "intellect makes
    everything" (e.g., Plotinus) be seen as "idealism" (a SOM variation). In
    other words, your characterization of pre-modern philosophy is based on SOM.
    Nominalism created the fundamental intellect/world distinction that became
    SOM, and I note that both the MOQ and SOL preserves that distinction, by
    believing that intellect came into existence from a world without it. The
    MOQ is recoverable, in my opinion, by noting that value implies intellect
    (separate argumentation is needed for this). This will change the
    characterization of the fourth static level, (and of course the
    characterization of DQ as "pre-intellectual"). And to finally overcome the
    Aristotelian form/formless distinction that the MOQ adapts will require the
    logic of contradictory identity, but that is also another argument.

    (BTW, with this last comment I hope it is clear that I am not saying that
    all we need to do is go back to pre-modern metaphysics. It doesn't work in
    our post-modern situation. But those difficulties are not because it is
    incipient SOM).

    - Scott

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    From: < >
    To: < >
    Sent: Wednesday, October 26, 2005 2:07 AM
    Subject: Re: MD The SOL fallacy was the intelligence fallacy (was

    Hi Scott

    23 Oct.you wrote:

    > I see no evidence in, say, Plotinus, that he thought in terms of "a
    > mind that thinks".

    Plotinus is a neo-platonist, in ZMM the reasoning is that the
    subject/object world view emerged with the ancient Greek
    thinkers. This went through several stages, but wasn't close to the
    "mind/matter" variety, rather a search for eternal principles
    beyond the mythological reality. Anaxagoras was ... (ZMM p 366)

        "...the first to identify the One as NOUS, meaning "mind".

    and Parmenides:

        "...made it clear for the first time that the immoral
        principle, the one, truth,god is separate from appearance
        and from opinion, and the importance of this separation
        and its effect upon subsequent history cannot be
        overstated..."

    As said those thinkers did not speak of a subject or mind, the
    idea is that these principles be they "water" (Thales), Air
    (Anaximenes) "numbers" (Pythagoras) "fire" (Heraclitus) ....etc.
    were regarded as something beyond both humans and gods.

    I can't go through it all, but with Socrates it had become
    Truth/Opinion, with Plato Ideas/Appearances, with Aristotle
    Substance/Appearances, only much later did the mind that
    observes naturlal constants occur (Descartes) and the many spin-
    offs.

    > For Plotinus, the first emanation from the One was
    > Intellect (nous),

    Of course Plotinus saw the first emanation from the One (God) as
    "nous" his was Medieval times. This is my very point: If we allow
    SOM or intellect's view of itself we get mind, but what we want is
    the MOQ's view of intellect which is the mind/matter distinction.
    Will you ever get this?

    > not Something That Thinks. Nor did Hegel or
    > Coleridge, so I hardly think of the MOQ as the "first ever". In
    > fact, I don't think that was much of a confinement at all.

    Hegel and Coleridge!? All Western philosophy after Plato has
    been footnotes to him, how can they apply in a MOQ discussion?

    > I don't
    > assume a "mind that thinks" either, and I wonder where you get the
    > idea that I do.

    Maybe "mind AND thinking" confuses, but you postulate intellect
    as where all emanates from. For example this to Ian
    Glendinning (Oct.17):

        "..... what intellect means to me, namely, the creating and
        manipulating of, and reflection on, symbolic SQ".

    You use some perfunctory "Q" terms, but it sounds like intellect
    creates and manipulates and reflects on "symbolic static quality"
    which means that all static levels are thoughts.

    > I just assume "thinking",

    Right: All is thoughts.

    > and that it will always shake out in a
    > dynamic/static manner (though one can use other word pairs as well,
    > including S/O[2], though not S/O[1]).

    Trust Scott to add something cryptic, but I implore you to
    contemplate my point that intellect regards itself as from where
    everything emanates, while it from a MOQ view is THE VALUE
    of the distinction between the said intellect and what emanates
    from it.

    Bo

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