Re: MD Rhetoric

From: david buchanan (dmbuchanan@hotmail.com)
Date: Sat Nov 05 2005 - 22:50:13 GMT

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    Matt, Mike, David and all interested MOQers:

    Way back on August 25th, Matt said to dmb:
    ...The most important problem area is certainly, as you put it, fusing
    mysticism and pragmatism. ...I'm not sure, but I take your term
    "epistemological pluralism" to be what you've learned from pragmatism. Maybe
    not where you _actually_ learned it from, but from what I can tell, what you
    call epistemological pluralism (your name for those parts of Pirsig dealing
    with truth) is coextensive with what I follow Rorty in calling pragmatism.
    And the way I see it, mysticism and epistemological pluralism _aren't_ fused
    together at all. One way to put the relation is to say that
    epistemological pluralism is there to police the border between
    philosophical mysticism and epistemology, so that every time mysticism wants
    to say something epistemological, the pluralism is there to say, "Nah, nah.
    I don't think you want to do that." (I'm not entirely sure about how you
    see your epistemological pluralism, but that is, I think, one way of putting
    how I see mysticism and pragmatism relating.)

    dmb says:
    I picked up the phrase "epistemological pluralism" from Ken Wilber and, as I
    understand it, this is a slightly more refined (non-SOM) version of the
    "radical empiricism" of William James. My view is approximately opposite
    from yours in that this is exactly the move that allows the mystical
    experience to be counted as valid empirical evidence. I looked to Mr. Google
    for a reality check on this point. James wrote: "My philosophy is what I
    call a radical empiricism, a pluralism, a ‘tychism,’ which represents order
    as being gradually won and always in the making." "To be radical, an
    empiricism must neither admit into its constructions any element that is not
    directly experienced, nor exclude from them any element that is directly
    experienced." Here we see James making an attempt to include all kinds of
    experience, including the varieties of religious experience, rather than
    just the sensory experience and reflection upon it as is found in
    traditional empiricism. This respect for concrete experience over our
    theories and metaphysical assumptions is what makes it radical. This respect
    for categories of experience traditonally excluded from empiricism is what
    makes it pluralistic. So the way I see it, epistemological empiricism are
    very much connected. (Although it seems a bit much to say they are "fused".)
    As Pirsig says, mystical experience has been excluded for metaphysical
    reasons, has been excluded because of our metaphysical assumptions, but
    Wilber, James and Pirsig are all saying that they rather give up the
    assumptions than the experience which seems to contradict them. They put
    experience over theory. I think this is only sane and reasonable. Why should
    ANY experience be excluded? What could be MORE real than experience?

    Matt said to dmb:
    ...I still need to say something about how I actually see the relation
    between mysticism and pragmatism, how I see what's going on at the border.
    I guess the first thing I'd note is that, from what I understand, both
    mysticism and pragmatism tells us that we
    can't _say_ anything about reality as it is in itself. A border skirmish
    starts to brew, though, when mystics tell us they have _knowledge_ or the
    _truth_ of the ultimate reality. What do they mean if we can't say anything
    about it? The way I see it, pragmatism should tell us to restrict the words
    "knowledge" and "truth" to discursive practices. If its formulatable in
    language, then its susceptible to all the things we've learned about
    justifying our knowledge over the years--argumentation, evidence,
    plausibility, elegance, etc.

    dmb says:
    You and Rorty want to "restrict" what counts as valid in a way that seems
    very UN-pragmatic. Its restricted by theory. It excludes certain kinds of
    experience, or rather all kinds of experience, except for linguistic
    experience. That's wacked. This seems to be exactly the kind of problem
    radical empiricism is designed to avoid. Also, I think there is some
    confusion in your asserton that "both mysticism and pragmatism tells us that
    we can't SAY anything about reality as it is in itself". It seens you are
    confusing ineffability with some kind of Kantian gap between appearance and
    reality, between the phenomenal and noumenal realms. But the "ineffability"
    of the mystical experience refers to the gap between two kinds of
    experience, mystical experience and intellectual experience and NOT between
    that which we experience and that which we are forever completely ignorant.
    In other words, the mystical experience is said to be ineffable because it
    is intellectually unknowable but NOT because its impossible to know at all.
    The Kantian nuomenal realm is beyond experience while the mystical
    experience is knowable. The mystical experience is known directly while the
    noumenal realm can never be known or experienced at all. Huge difference.
    Here we are talking past each other in a very big way. As I understand it,
    the mystic is not claiming to have reached this noumenal realm. As I
    understand the MOQ, there is no such thing. Experience is not supposed to
    get us closer to reality or anything like that. Instead experience is
    reality. Experience is what we know, all we CAN know and the idea of some
    inaccesable reality is just bad metaphysics. Its the SOM trap. Make sense?

    Matt continued:
    The interviewer asks Rorty about Lacan and Rorty, trying to explain why he
    doesn't get Lacan, says at the end, "I guess I just distrust sublimity so
    much that the more they talk about it, the more I run away." The
    interviewer responds, "But at least you give it a place. It's not that you
    say whatever you can't put into words doesn't exist," and
    Rorty says, "I guess I do say that actually. I think that there's a
    constant temptation to say that there are things that can't be put into
    words. But, it's not something I want to indulge in." ...I take Rorty's
    point about ineffable things not existing to be that, once you eff it,
    you've made it exist in some sense where its no longer ineffable. This is
    why, long ago, I said mysticism is analogous to poetry. Like the poet, they
    bring things into existence. In trying to express the inexpressible, eff
    the ineffable, they expand our language and allow us to say more.'

    dmb:
    First of all, it seems quite a stretch to claim that non-existence can be
    reversed through poetry. I mean, the poet or any other effer can only
    convert or translate those sublime experiences, she can't create them per
    se. Sure, creative writers of all sorts bring things in to existence. No
    controversy there. But she's is not creating the mystical experience by
    depicting it after the fact. And secondly, this idea fails to make the
    distinction between the ineffable Dynamic experience itself and the static
    patterns later used as a reference to it. (Epistemological plutalism accepts
    both kinds of experience as valid empirical evidence, but insists these are
    two different categories of experience.) I guess that you'd reply by saying
    that you reject the distinction or reject the categories, following Rorty,
    because language is all we can know and anything beyond language is beyond
    knowledge - or some such thing. But this brings me back to your neo-Kantian
    attitude toward epistemology and metaphysics. As explained above, you seem
    to be using "ineffable" as if it means "unknowable" when it really only
    means "inexpressible" or, more accuarately in this context, "intellectually
    unknowable but accessable by non-rational means". Rorty is pretty clearly
    saying, "whatever can't be put into words doesn't exist." He wants to "run
    away" from the sublime and does not "want to indulge in" it because, I
    supppose, it can't be put into words. This seems to put theory over
    experience. The experience doesn't fit into the theory and so it is
    effectively ignored. This is bad metaphysics, mere metaphysics. As Wilber
    puts it in his SEX, ECOLOGY, SPIRITUALITY...

    "...even if empiricism is always and lamentably tending toward 'sensory
    empiricism', many mystics speak of 'mystical empiricism', meaning DIRECT
    MYSTICAL EXPERIENCE, using 'experience' in the wider and truer sense of
    'immediate awareness' and not just 'immediate sensory awareness' (which is
    why so many mystics insist on calling their endeavors experiential,
    experimental, and scientific in that sense).
    And here, too, mental experience can get into trouble, because it can use a
    mental symbol, such as the MENTAL EXPERINCE of the word 'G-o-d,' to stand
    for the SPIRITUAL EXPERIENCE of direct illumination (for example), and so
    here again it is caught in 'mere abstractions': it is using mental
    experience to try to cover experiences that AREN'T in themselves mental.
    These 'representations' then become 'mere metaphysics' and since the time of
    Kant, we all know that is a very bad idea: it won't hold water, which is to
    say, it hasn't any experiential grounding; this type of 'mere metaphysics'
    is simply EMPTY CATEGORIES devoid of true knowledge, which is to say devoid
    of true experience.
    However, since Kant doesn't acknowledge SPIRITUAL EXPERIENCE, he THEREFORE
    thinks metaphysics per se is dead, which is the point at which Schopenhauer,
    among others, leveled a devastinging criticism of Kant (and the point where
    Katz's neo-kantian argument also collapses). Kant demonstrated that mental
    symbols without experiential grounding are EMPTY: but the real conclusion of
    his argument is that ALL FUTURE METAPHYSICS MUST BE EXPERIENTIAL - that is
    to say; experimental, grounded in direct awareness and experience, coupled
    with validity claims that can be redeemed in the experiment of
    contemplation, and grounded in the three strands of knowledge
    accumulation...
    Virtually every thinker from Kant onward has announced the 'death of
    metaphysics' and the 'death of philosophy' - from Nietzsche to Heidegger,
    from Ayer to Wittgenstein, from Derrida to Foucault, from Adorno to Lyotard.
    And in the sense of the 'death of empty categories,' I agree entirely. But
    the real prolegomenon to any future metaphysics is, not that the endeavor is
    altogether dead, but that the real metaphyics can now, finally, get under
    way; actual comtemplative development is the future of metaphysics."

    And I would add that a reality that exists indepentantly and is beyond our
    experience is just about the emptiest category I can think of. Talking about
    realities that nobody ever experienced is just a big waste of time. (Which
    is what bugs me about theology) I agree with the Pirsigian notion that
    ultimate reality is not a theory. Its known through experience, that its
    knowable through non-rational means. And despite my constant insistance on
    the distinction between intellectual experience and pre-intellectual
    experience, despite my constant use of the word "ineffable", I talk about it
    all the time. And in the Eastern traditions they do a damn good job of
    effing it. The only real problem comes when these two categories of
    experience confused, when one is taken for the other or when one is taken
    over the other. That, my friend, is epistemological pluralism. Its says
    there are different modes of experience and different categories of
    knowledge. They are all considered valid so long sensory experience iand
    mental experience are not mistaken for spirtual experience, etc.

    Thanks.
    dmb

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