RE: MD Good is already a noun

From: enoonan (enoonan@kent.edu)
Date: Mon Jan 07 2002 - 21:53:17 GMT


>===== Original Message From moq_discuss@moq.org =====
>Happy New Year Rick, Marco,
>
>
In reading Squonk's email about verbs I am wondering where this fits into it.
I had first come to this discussion group in trying to get a handle on this
article I had read called "I seem to be a verb"
So our claim was that Pirsig should have put " ? is a noun" because when
people read Good they are thinking of the good/bad concept rather than a
defitionless good. Wouldn't it be a verb that divides good (n) into good
(adj) and bad (adj)?
So Marco with your warm/cold concept. It seems your are claiming ? is a
continuum, and replacing "cold" with "very little warmth".
But where I am getting a little confused is should Pirsig have written
"Good is a noun and a verb." or "Good (n) seems to be a verb"

Do you think we are eliminating something from this discussion by ignoring
verbs, or am I missing something?

Erin

>
>MARCO:
>Is it so difficult? I figure out this that you call 'the Pirsig's Law' like
>the Warm/Cold concept. Actually it is well useful to say that "Ice is cold",
>but we also know that we can also rule out the (adjective) term "cold" and
>use only the (noun) term "warmth". It is actually more correct to state that
>a (inorganic) thing that has no warmth does not exist, that is like to say
>"warmth is a noun" (is it hairsplitting? maybe, but then physics is
>hairsplitting too). Likewise, according to the MOQ, it is more correct to
>say that Good as noun, instead of discussing if things are good or bad.
>
>[I think Erin was saying something similar about words and their opposite]
>
>

>

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