Re: MD Pure experience and the Kantian problematic

From: Sam Norton (elizaphanian@kohath.wanadoo.co.uk)
Date: Sun Mar 13 2005 - 17:25:19 GMT

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    Hi DMB, (also Wim)

    As you say, we've gone over this many times before. But as we're in the
    business of swapping quotations, let me give another one from Nicholas Lash,
    when he's discussing James' understanding of religious experience:

    "Although it is James' account of the personal, of what it is that
    constitutes _personal_ experience, which I want to keep centrally in view,
    it is more important to bear in mind that that account was not offered as a
    merely theoretical proposal (or he himself would have fallen into the very
    intellectualism against which he was struggling). In his view, it is not
    merely a matter of saying that institutions and ideas form no part of the
    essence of "personal religion pure and simple" but, more practically and
    more urgently, of arguing that they distort and threaten such religion.....
    "The contrast between the 'personal' and 'institutional' aspects of religion
    is first spelled out in the lecture, to which we keep returning, on
    "Circumscription of the topic": "At the outset", he says, " we are struck by
    one great partition which divides the religious field. On the one side of it
    lies institutional, on the other personal religion." The essence of the
    "institutional branch" of religion is said to consist in "worship and
    sacrifice," which are construed as "procedures for working on the
    disposition of the deity." In contrast, the "center of interest" of " the
    more personal branch of religion" is said to lie in "the inner dispositions
    of man himself." The energies of institutional religion are directed toward
    manipulating the deity whereas, in personal religion - which is concerned
    with the relation that "goes direct from heart to heart... between man and
    his maker" - the structural element, "the ecclesiastical organisation, with
    its priests and sacraments and other go-betweens, sinks to an altogether
    secondary place." Thus, personal religion issues in "personal" acts, whereas
    institutional religion finds expression in "ritual" acts.
    "There is nothing that is original in this picture. Any student of
    post-Enlightenment religious thought is familiar with the contrast between
    priestcraft and prophecy, between "religions of authority" and "the religion
    of the spirit", between materialistic religion with its structures of
    mediation obtruding between finite and infinite spirit, and religions in
    which the human individual enjoys a relationship of pure immediacy with
    whatever is taken to be the divine. And if, to many nineteenth-century
    thinkers, the elements for this contrast seemed to be simply supplied by the
    data, objectively _given_ in the history of religions (and especially in the
    history of Judaism and Christianity), the twentieth-century reader of
    nineteenth century texts is better placed to notice the influence of more
    subjective factors. Not to put too fine a point on it, the contrast between
    material and spiritual, or "external" and "internal" religion, as that
    contrast was persistently drawn in the dominant narrative of both Liberal
    Protestantism and its secularized successors, expressed deep-rooted
    anti-Catholic and anti-Semitic prejudice."

    To me, there are all sorts of echoes here in what Lash is describing from
    what Pirsig describes and what Northrop describes (again, suggesting a
    common inheritance from James) and the sort of argument that you come out
    with. What I find difficult to get across is how partial a view this is. In
    other words, the perspective that, it seems to me, you all hold in common,
    is one that bears no relation to how the Christian faith was understood
    prior to around 1800 (the father of Liberal Protestantism is Schleiermacher,
    by the way). Maybe I am unfairly maligning Northrop, but a statement like
    "The divine object in the West is an unseen God the Father" just reminded me
    of Pirsig's comment in ZMM when he starts to read Aristotle: "That just left
    Phaedrus aghast. Stopped. He'd been prepared to decode messages of great
    subtlety, systems of great complexity in order to understand the deeper
    inner meaning of Aristotle, claimed by many to be the greatest philosopher
    of all time. And then to get hit, right off, straight in the face, with an
    asshole statement like that! It really shook him."

    Which is how I reacted to that quotation from Northrop. As I said, taken as
    a simple sentence, it is straightforwardly false - it's "an asshole
    statement". In other words: it is NOT the case that "The divine object in
    the West is an unseen God the Father". Maybe there's some interrogation to
    be done about what counts as "West" here, but given the language of 'Father'
    I imagine that Christianity is at least part of it. And Christianity claims
    that God is visible in human flesh, part of the Trinity. God is tangible.
    Therefore, for Christianity, the divine object (in so far as that language
    makes any sense at all) is a visible God the Son, and an experienceable
    Spirit, both in relationship with an unseen God the Father. So Northrop
    either has to unpack and qualify that statement or be convicted of a basic
    mistake (ie claiming that 'the West' denies the Incarnation).

    Thing is, these doubts of mine aren't just the result of my own
    peculiarities and idiosyncrasies. I'm not a great academic expert in the
    area. I just see that there is a severe tension between what I have
    discovered or been taught and what Pirsig is putting across. It's quite
    possible that everything that I've been taught is wrong, but I'm not going
    to be persuaded of that if I don't feel the basic points I'm trying to make
    have been understood or acknowledged.

    Anyhow, I'm sure this will run for a while.

    Sam

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