[MD] FW: MD Language, SOM, and the MoQ

From: david buchanan (dmbuchanan@hotmail.com)
Date: Mon Dec 05 2005 - 02:28:05 GMT

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    >From: "David Buchanan" <DBuchanan@cpr.org>
    >To: <dmbuchanan@hotmail.com>
    >Subject: FW: MD Language, SOM, and the MoQ
    >Date: Sun, 4 Dec 2005 19:22:44 -0700
    >
    >Matt and all MOQers:
    >
    >Matt said:
    >...The place I would like to focus on is in the beginning of Lila when
    >Pirsig describes mysticism and logical positivism. Roughly, Pirsig says
    >that the logical positivists think that (some) language can capture reality
    >perfectly well, we just have to iron out when and where (yes with rocks, no
    >with values), and that the mystics think that language can't capture at
    >all.
    > Language takes you further away from reality, not closer...
    >
    >dmb says:
    >Actually, Pirsig says the mystic objection is that "thought" takes you
    >further away, not "language". He says that the postivists and the mystics
    >reject metaphysics "for completely opposite reasons", not because they
    >share
    >a "common presupposition". I'll even argue that the postivisits are talking
    >about "reality" in two completely different ways. In other words, I think
    >you're misreading this section of Lila...
    >
    >Matt continued:
    >...I said earlier that both the idea that language can span the gap between
    >us and reality and the idea that it _can't_ take part in the pathos of
    >distance. Both have as a common presupposition the idea that there is a
    >_gap_ between us and reality and both have suggestions about how to span
    >that gap (through language on the one hand and direct mystical experience
    >on
    >the other). When Pirsig says that, since both logical positivism and
    >mysticism eschew metaphysics, metaphysics might be the place to mend the
    >two
    >together, to split the difference between the two, I think Pirsig takes on
    >as conceptual baggage that common assumption: there is a distance.
    >
    >dmb says:
    >Beyond the often repeated point that the distinction between language or
    >thought and mystical experience does not constitute a such a gap and
    >asserts
    >no such distance, this is where I'll add the point that the postivists and
    >the mystics are talking about two different realities, so to speak...
    >
    >"The central reality of mysticism, the reality that Phaedrus had called
    >"Quality" in his first book, is not a metaphysical chess piece. Quality
    >(DQ)
    >doesn't have to be defined. You understand it without definition, ahead of
    >definition. Quality is a direct experience independent of and prior to
    >intellectual abstractions."
    >
    >By contrast, the positivists were concerned with "the natural sciences" and
    >"scientific observation", with the static world of definitions. And this
    >same point also underlines the often repeated point. The mystic says that
    >thought (language) takes you away from reality because they are talking
    >about an experience that is prior to definitions and distinct from that
    >mode
    >of experience. Again, this is a distinction between two kinds of
    >experience,
    >not between appearance and reality, us and reality. Its a distinction
    >between two kinds of reality.
    >
    >Matt continued:
    >...Pirsig leads us towards that eschewment when he tells us, following
    >James
    >and others, that experience _is_ reality, but I don't think he goes far
    >enough in the erasure of the pathos of distance with his descriptions of
    >language's function. ...Language neither does nor does not capture
    >experience. Language isn't in the capturing business. Language is a tool
    >that we use to deal with reality, with our experience. If we make this
    >turn
    >fully from language-as-a-mirror (or pirate) to language-as-a-tool, if we
    >fully get rid of representationalism, I think we will want to get rid of
    >the
    >idea of a "pre-intellectual experience."
    >
    >dmb says:
    >I think its clear that Pirsig has already thoroughly rejected the
    >correspondence theory of truth and has done so without getting rid of the
    >idea of the pre-intellectual experience. In fact, one could make a case
    >that
    >he has rejected the representational paradigm in order to INCLUDE the
    >pre-intellectual experience, not to get rid of it. And I'd like to know
    >what
    >makes you believe that rejecting representationalism means adopting the
    >language-as-a-tool stance. Not only do I fail to see how rejecting one is
    >followed by adopting the other, I think the language-as-a-tool stance is a
    >kind of amoral functionalism that is profoundly at odds with the Pirsigian
    >picture. This tool theory only asks what the purpose is and how well that
    >purpose is served, but not whether the purpose is worthy or meaningful or
    >moral. It perpetuates the genetic defect in our rationality in that it is
    >"emotionally hollow" and "spiritually empty" despite having rejected
    >representationalism. By adopting the language-as-a-tool stance, you have
    >un-solved this problem.
    >
    >As I understand it, Pirsig adopts the we-are-suspended-in-language stance
    >in
    >order to assert the point the our intellectual understanding of things not
    >only SHOULD be derived within the context of human values and human
    >purposes, but that it necessarily MUST do so insofar as all our
    >intellectual
    >descriptions have and evolutionary relationship with the social level,
    >where
    >language and human meaning originate. In the MOQ, we are suspended in
    >static
    >patterns of value, in a matrix of human meaning. In the MOQ these patterns
    >are not instruments with which we deal or cope with reality, they are
    >reality.
    >
    >Finally, let me expand on an idea I addressed in the last installment on
    >this thread. This thread began as a response to an assertion I made, one
    >that has not yet been addressed; "Surely anyone can see the difference
    >between an unknowable realm that can never be experienced directly and an
    >experience that can't be captured in words." And hopefully you recall that
    >I
    >tried to explain what this difference was, that an "unknowable realm", like
    >a Kantian realm of things-in-themselves, is not to be confused with "an
    >experience that can't be captured", like a Pirsig's primary empirical
    >reality. On the way to looking for something entirely different, I found
    >some help where I never expected it, from Fichte by way of Wilber. This
    >might get this same idea across. Its from Wilber's SEX, ECOLOGY,
    >SPIRITUALITY: The Spirit of Evolution.
    >
    >"The first thing Fichte did was attempt to break the hold of formal
    >rationality by demolishing Kant's 'thing-in-itself'. If, as Kant had said,
    >the thing-in-itself can never in any way be known, then, said Fichte, it
    >doesn't exist. In its place he substituted the power of the productive
    >imagination of the infinite and supra-individual Self, which in essence
    >meant; it is not that there is some forever unknowable thing-in-itself,
    >quite different from consciousness, that impinges on consciousness and
    >'causes' perception; it is rather that there is only one dynamic Life
    >process that knows itself in various degree and from various angles. The
    >world knows itself in various ways, and in orderto do so it cuts itself up,
    >so to speak, into finite subject and finite object - but both subject and
    >object issue from that same ground, so their apparent incompatibility is
    >never ultimate, and the ground can be recovered in pure nondual
    >perception."
    >
    >I'd be happy to point out the similarities between Pirsig and Fichte here
    >if
    >you like, but I suppose its easy enough to see for yourself.
    >
    >Does that help?
    >
    >Thanks,
    >dmb
    >
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