From: ian glendinning (psybertron@gmail.com)
Date: Thu Mar 17 2005 - 00:28:32 GMT
Matt,
You said
As for the idea of "pre-intellectual experience," this is the exact
concept I would like to get rid of in Pirsig .... that's just going
along with common sense, which is what Dan is trying to convince us is
all that Pirsig meant.
I say ...
Not sure what you mean by "trying to get rid of" - trying to deny
that's what Pirsig meant ? I actually think I agree with Dan. However
I tink the subtley is linguistic - the very point we recognise the
phenomenon and put a name to it mentally - we have brought in millenia
of cultural conditioning already, even if we didn't "think" about it.
The name of the rose.
It's all linguistics / evolutionary psychology as you, Bohr and Pirsig
sem to agree.
Ian
On Wed, 16 Mar 2005 12:16:25 -0600, Matt Kundert
<pirsigaffliction@hotmail.com> wrote:
> Hi Ian, Dan,
>
> Ian said:
> IMHO - the use of pure / immefiate / direct in Pirsig / MoQ terms is to
> signify "pre-intellectual" experience. The more modern problem I see is that
> people may think it's being used to distinguish qualia from pre-cognitive
> experience, in which case we are generally not concerned with that here.
>
> Pre-intellectual, I'm talking raw, as in before reflective / rationalising
> interpretation of what is being experienced.
>
> Pre-cognitive, I'm talking raw, as in quanto-electro-chemical phenomena
> before their immediate interpratation as qualities like red, hot, pain,
> experiences.
>
> (Personally I don't think I believe in qualia, which may undermnine the
> distinction for me, but I think it's the distinction being confused.)
>
> Matt:
> If I understand you correctly here, what you call "pre-cognitive" would be
> something like our brain states (C-fiber stimulation, etc.) as opposed to
> our descriptions of them (as red, hot, etc.). If this is what you mean,
> then I would agree, qualia as an epistemological concept is suspect and I
> think "immediate" as a differentiation between the two types of description
> (roughly, a brain description and a mind description) is equally suspect.
> For pragmatists like Rorty, we can describe phenomena equally well in both
> types of descriptions, but neither one reduces to the other (this is the
> mind/brain identity thesis).
>
> As for the idea of "pre-intellectual experience," this is the exact concept
> I would like to get rid of in Pirsig. Sure, we can make a distinction
> between our "immediate" impression of something before we think about it
> later more. But that's just going along with common sense, which is what
> Dan is trying to convince us is all that Pirsig meant (with the difference
> between being at a baseball game and watching on TV, or watching a baseball
> game from wherever and thinking about it later). I don't think it's as
> apparent as that. I think Pirsig is trying to draw specifically
> philosophical consequences out of his idea of "pre-intellectual experience."
> It seems to me that Pirsig is trying to say that our "pre-intellecual
> experience" of low Quality _happens before language_, and this
> pre-linguistic experience is closer to Quality than post-linguistic, that
> language is a mediation between us and reality. As he says in the famous
> hot stove example, "the low value comes first, then the subjective
> thoughts…." (Ch 8) Value first, thoughts, i.e. language, second. As far as
> I can see, there is no way to draw any philosophical consequences out of the
> idea of "pre-intellectual experience" that does not tie you into traditional
> problems. For pragmatists, there is no way to unhook language from
> experience, just as Pirsig agrees to when he says with Bohr that we are
> "suspended in language." It seems to me that Pirsig equivocates between a
> commonsensical notion of direct experience and a specifically philosophical
> sense, and this equivocation is what allows him to gain plausibility for a
> specifically philosophical concept.
>
> At least, that's how it seems to me. If it were otherwise, I'm not sure why
> Pirsig would spend so much time talking about the "pre-intellectual cutting
> edge of reality" and how that's supposed to cure some of our specifically
> philosophical ailments. Its understood that common sense contains Platonic
> and Cartesian formations, as Dan alluded to elsewhere when he said, "Of
> course the [baseball] analogy is 'Cartesian theatre' in as much as our
> language is grounded in such a manner." But aren't we supposed to be
> changing such things in as much as we want our language to be better?
>
> Matt
>
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