Re: MD When is an interpretation not an interpretation?

From: David MOREY (us@divadeus.freeserve.co.uk)
Date: Sun Nov 02 2003 - 14:16:13 GMT

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    Matt:
    I'm not sure why pragmatists would countenance a "description/experience"
    distinction. To me it sounds like you are trying to pull our descriptions
    off of our experiences, unless you are simply distinguishing between the
    world we are causally in touch with and our knowledge of the world.

    David M: Generally no, but one possible yes. Obviously we have all kinds of
    experience that we
    do not want to sit around describing to each other, a very simple
    distinction between describing and experiencing,
    but obviously I am with Rorty that it is interpretation all the way down, so
    that what we experience is made possible by all kinds of social, language
    en-framing. There may be one sort of yes, where we experience something
    pure, pure quality
    you might call it, but, of course, this is something mystic that you cannot
    say anything about, because to name its qualities
    is to distinguish it from something else, and there is no something else
    without differance (per Derrida's scheme for meaning).
    Still not happy with this causality notion, Nietzsche gives it the good
    whipping it deserves, you say push us around,
    exactly as Nietzsche says you are confusing bodily feelings and projecting
    them onto the interaction/patterns that things/objects
    demonstrate, and of course, Nietzsche gives the idea of things a good
    whipping too, you are projecting your own illusion
    of persistence/duration onto the world. We would be better talking about
    dynamic quanta and mere repetition he suggests,
    sound familiar?

    regards
    David M

    regards
    David M
    ----- Original Message -----
    From: "MATTHEW PAUL KUNDERT" <mpkundert@students.wisc.edu>
    To: <moq_discuss@moq.org>
    Sent: Saturday, November 01, 2003 10:48 PM
    Subject: Re: MD When is an interpretation not an interpretation?

    > Hey Paul, David,
    >
    > Paul said:
    > Does this create a reality/Reality distinction?
    >
    > Matt:
    > Sure, but this distinction is between two kinds of books with Plato to
    Kant to Husserl and Russell on one side and Protagoras to Hume to Nietzsche
    and James on the other.
    >
    > Paul said:
    > Does this create a description/reality distinction or is "a description,"
    for all intents and purposes, what pragmatists mean by reality? If so, does
    it follow that describing produces reality?
    >
    > Matt:
    > No, there is no description/reality distinction because pragmatists don't
    think we can pull off our descriptions of reality and look at reality bare
    and naked. But neither is "a description" what we mean by "reality". That
    would be idealism. Pragmatists agree with realists that there is a world
    "out there," we just think that it affects us causally. We don't represent
    it, it just pushes us around. Realists would claim that pragmatists are the
    same as idealists and that we are both saying that we are, in essence, blind
    to reality. This is only what idealists like Kantians are saying.
    Pragmatists repudiate the idea of representations and the metaphor of sight.
    We are neither clear-sighted or blind. Sight is a bad way of framing
    things.
    >
    > David said:
    > If you are going to say anything it is a description. Quite happy to talk
    about a description/experience distinction.
    >
    > Matt:
    > I'm not sure why pragmatists would countenance a "description/experience"
    distinction. To me it sounds like you are trying to pull our descriptions
    off of our experiences, unless you are simply distinguishing between the
    world we are causally in touch with and our knowledge of the world.
    >
    > Matt
    >
    >
    >
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