Re: MD When is an interpretation not an interpretation?

From: David MOREY (us@divadeus.freeserve.co.uk)
Date: Sun Nov 16 2003 - 17:11:43 GMT

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    Scott

    I think most people here think of intellectual
    and linguistic as necessarily human activities (not me)
    and hence their inability to go along with your attempts to go
    to a deeper level of analysis. Nietzsche talks about both
    man and nature as exhibiting both Appollinian and Dionysian impulses.
    And perhaps there is some distinction between what man and nature do
    with Apollo.

    regards
    David M

    ----- Original Message -----
    From: "Scott R" <jse885@spinn.net>
    To: <moq_discuss@moq.org>
    Sent: Sunday, November 16, 2003 1:42 AM
    Subject: Re: MD When is an interpretation not an interpretation?

    > David M,
    > > can you explain what these are please:
    > > (I certainly agree that we can still do
    > > metaphysics if we revise our understanding
    > > of what it does and how it works, and ironic is certainly
    > > part of it, I take my metaphysics as one with a phenomenological
    > > ontology that necessarily places openness/nothing at its heart
    > > and hence keeping the conversation going, the pragmatists can
    > > only 'hope' to keep it going.
    > > David M
    > >
    > >
    > > - if y'all would lose your nominalist
    > > > presuppositions :-)
    > > >
    > > > - Scott
    >
    > Mainly I am referring to the presupposition that the
    > non-intellectual/non-linguistic is ontologically prior to the
    > intellectual/linguistic. (That it is temporally prior is not a problem
    once
    > one realizes that the non-spatio-temporal is ontologically prior to the
    > spatio-temporal. Pages of justification omitted, but quantum physics is a
    > nice place to start.)
    >
    > - Scott
    >
    >
    >
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