RE: MD Further comments to Matt

From: Paul Turner (paul@turnerbc.co.uk)
Date: Tue Jan 11 2005 - 10:18:24 GMT

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    Matt

    Matt said:
    As Sam said, this all revolves around the notion of "pure experience."
    "Pure experience," or "unmediated experience," is unintelligible without
    its
    counterpart "unpure experience," or "mediated experience." The
    distinction
    between unmediated and mediated experience is Pirsig's distinction
    between
    Dynamic and static Quality and it is also the distinction that has
    traditionally been used to describe the appearance/reality distinction.

    Paul:
    I said in the last (very long) post that I thought this was, in the case
    of Kant, incorrect. Just in case you were in any doubt as to what I
    meant, I think it is incorrect to say that Kant equated reality with
    unmediated, or pure, experience. Experience, to Kant, was entirely of
    and within the phenomenal realm. There was no experience whatsoever of
    the noumenal realm, by definition. It was the realm of things as they
    are independent of experience. It was neither unmediated nor pure
    experience; it was not experience in any definition of the term. In
    other words, reality, to Kant, was not something we experience.

    Pirsig, on the other hand, equates reality with experience. Thus, in
    Pirsig's scheme, there is no noumenal realm, and insofar as it is the
    delineation of its counterpart, there is no phenomenal realm either.
    There is no distinction. This is a fundamental difference which you
    cannot gloss over with any amount of hypothetical absorption of ideas
    from a conceptual milieu.

    Another point I wish to make is that I fail to see why setting forth an
    epistemological proposition necessitates the ad infinitum answering of
    the skeptic. You lay down your principles and that's that. If the
    skeptic fails to find a satisfactory answer in your principles there is
    no Transcendental Court of Acceptable Philosophy waiting to dismiss your
    theory. Who is this skeptic? Why should we worry about her?

    Finally, as I understand it, the MOQ epistemology is simple. Truth is
    defined as a set of high quality intellectual patterns. What is a high
    quality intellectual pattern? Generally speaking, it is a theory which
    displays logical coherence, brevity, parsimony, breadth of explanation
    and/or precision of prediction. The MOQ epistemology rejects the
    correspondence theory of truth because it rejects the metaphysical
    assumption that there is something objective to correspond to.

    I mentioned that the Poincaré section in ZMM proposed something about an
    MOQ epistemology. I've copied it here for ease of reference.

    "Poincaré had been working on a puzzle of his own. His judgment that the
    scientist selects facts, hypotheses and axioms on the basis of harmony,
    also left the rough serrated edge of a puzzle incomplete. To leave the
    impression in the scientific world that the source of all scientific
    reality is merely a subjective, capricious harmony is to solve problems
    of epistemology while leaving an unfinished edge at the border of
    metaphysics that makes the epistemology unacceptable.

    But we know from Phĉdrus' metaphysics that the harmony Poincaré talked
    about is not subjective. It is the source of subjects and objects and
    exists in an anterior relationship to them. It is not capricious, it is
    the force that opposes capriciousness; the ordering principle of all
    scientific and mathematical thought which destroys capriciousness, and
    without which no scientific thought can proceed." [ZMM Ch22]

    Regards

    Paul

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