Re: MD matt said scott said

From: David R (elephant@plato.plus.com)
Date: Sun Nov 23 2003 - 16:38:48 GMT

  • Next message: David Buchanan: "RE: MD Language in the MOQ"

    Scott,

    I grasped perfectly well that you were making a negative claim about
    correspondence, namely that it does not work in such and such cases. But in
    order for you to make that negative statement you must *mean* something by
    'correspondence', and so everything I have said about your explanation of
    that concept applies.

    I have't a perfect grasp yet of your claim that "sense perception is a kind
    of language", partly because we still haven't gotten to the bottom of what
    you mean by "sense-perceptible", to which point my puma question is
    addressed.

    As I have explained, the relevance of my question is to your claim to know
    what you are saying with 'correspondence', and *not* to the particular claim
    you are making about it (viz that it doesn't hold for generalities).

    That explained, what's your response to my last email?

    David R

    > From: "Scott R" < >
    > Reply-To:
    > Date: Sat, 22 Nov 2003 22:05:57 -0700
    > To: < >
    > Subject: Re: MD matt said scott said
    >
    > David R,
    >
    > You don't seem to grasp that my point in saying that truth by correspondence
    > only works when the statement is about sense-perceptible particulars was to
    > point out that it does NOT work with statements about generalities, or about
    > particulars that are not public, like thoughts and feelings. Here is my
    > original statement (to Platt):
    >
    > "Thus you miss the point when you give examples that are true by
    > correspondence. Truth by correspondence only works when the example
    > consists of sense-perceptible particulars, as is the case in your examples.
    > But
    > as soon as generalities are involved, truth by correspondence doesn't work."
    >
    > So the only thing I care about is if someone disputes this by claiming that
    > truth by correspondence DOES work with generalities. I don't care -- in this
    > context -- whether there are philosophical difficulties with saying that it
    > actually does work with sense-perceptible particulars. I am aware that there
    > are such difficulties, as there always are with questions about perception,
    > but don't want to bother with them in this context because they do not
    > concern my point. My main concern -- that it does not work when generalities
    > are involved -- holds even if there were no difference between physical
    > sight and insight, since those are both particulars. I would not be
    > concerned if the notion of "truth by correspondence" should be shown to be
    > unworkable in all cases.
    >
    > Since your main concern seems to be perception, I can say that I am aware
    > that there is a heavy cognitive role involved in ordinary perception. It is
    > also my perhaps crackpot view that sense perception is a kind of language,
    > and can be thought of as the creation of spatio-temporal forms out of
    > non-spatio-temporal whatever. If you want to start a separate discussion on
    > perception then that is where I would chime in, though I'm not inclined to
    > at this time since I've probably talked about it enough already in past
    > discussions, and I really ought to stick more closely to discussions more
    > relevant to the MOQ. See the archives if you're interested.
    >
    > - Scott
    >
    > ----- Original Message -----
    > From: "David R" < >
    > To: < >
    > Sent: Saturday, November 22, 2003 1:02 PM
    > Subject: Re: MD matt said scott said
    >
    >
    >> Scott,
    >>
    >> Thanks for your first answer to the puma question. You preface it by
    >> complaining once again that you can't see why anyone would think that it
    > is
    >> in the least bit important, so I will deal with that.
    >>
    >> Look, this is really simple.
    >>
    >> If you explain what 'correspondence' means by reference to something
    > called
    >> 'sense perceptible particulars' ("correspondence works for sense
    > perceptible
    >> pariculars") then, obviously, in order to understand what you are saying
    >> about correspondence (whatever it is you are saying about correspondence),
    >> we will have to understand what you mean by 'sense perceptible
    > particulars'.
    >>
    >> Clear?
    >>
    >> Now, you offer an explanation of 'sense perceptible' as 'physical sight',
    > as
    >> contrasted with 'insight or understanding'. Ok. Fine. So tell me how
    > this
    >> applies to actual cases of seeing things, and I will know what you mean by
    >> the contrast between 'physical sight' and 'insight'.
    >>
    >> That's all I want to do, understand what you are saying. My request for
    >> application of your distinction to actual cases is a reasonable one. The
    >> physical sight/ insight distinction is what your explanation of
    >> 'correspondence' has come down to, and it it turns out that you can't
    > apply
    >> the 'insight'/'physical sight' distinction in practice we will have to
    > start
    >> over.
    >>
    >> You may think (you seem to suggest this) that it is so increadibly simple
    > to
    >> clarify this fantastically easy point that it's not worth even raising it
    >> unless one is preternaturally stupid.
    >>
    >> Ok, in that case, there's nothing to be lost by *showing* me how simple it
    >> is to clarify the point, namely, by actually clarifying it. Wouldn't that
    >> be the simplest way of dealling with me?
    >>
    >> So let's come to the answer which you now reluctantly give to my question.
    >> Here was the question again:
    >>
    >> David R (previously):
    >> Scott has offered the following outstanding clarification of 'sense
    >> perceptible':
    >>
    >>> Sense-perceptible particulars are the objects and events we see, hear,
    >>> touch, smell, and taste. By "see" (to refer to your later post) I mean
    >>> physical sight, not insight or understanding.
    >>
    >> [...]
    >>
    >> What makes something a case of "physical" sight as opposed to "insight"?
    >>
    >> Try some actual cases of 'I see'.
    >>
    >> I'm walking home about 5pm in the deepening winter gloom in the dark eyes
    > of
    >> the forest, and I look up into the branches. I'm startled. I *see* the
    >> silouette of a long catty tail hanging down, and the mass of a couched
    >> animal. Immediately, without any pause for thought, I find myself stopped
    >> and looking up, expecting a growl to emminate - Oh no, that myth about the
    >> puma on the prowl: no myth.
    >>
    >> But no low growl comes. And no flash of eyes. And the movement in the
    >> coiling 'tail' is the same for all the trees, just wind. And now I *see*
    >> that it's just a knarled branch in a welsh forest, not a hungry killer.
    >>
    >> Ok, help me out. Is this a case of "physical sight", or of "insight"?
    >>
    >>> Scott answers:
    >>> It was a hallucination. Call it neither, or call it a case of physical
    > sight
    >>> that got corrected. What difference does it make?
    >>
    >> David R:
    >> (1) if the two cases of seeing in the example are *neither* physical sight
    >> nor insight/understanding, then your theoretical contrast between
    > 'physical
    >> sight' and 'insight' doesn't apply to seeing in the real world.
    >>
    >> That's a difference it makes.
    >>
    >> (2) if we treat the seeing of the puma as a case of hallucination (an
    >> erroneous understanding) and the seeing of the branch as 'corrected'
    >> physical sight, then it appears that we will have no way of explaining the
    >> fact that factors of *insight and understanding* are involved in realising
    >> that it's a branch (we recall the wind, we get no growl).
    >>
    >> That's a difference it makes.
    >>
    >> (3) if neither case is in fact a case of 'physical sight', then it will
    > seem
    >> that we can get by perfectly well without the concept of 'physical sight',
    >> and the distinction upon which you base your explanation of
    > 'correspondence'
    >> will have to be abandoned.
    >>
    >> That's a difference it makes.
    >>
    >>
    >> More generally, my motivating concern is that you may (for all I know) be
    >> unable to disentangle 'physical sight' from 'insight', and that being
    >> incapable of this, you will turn out not to have meant anything in
    >> particular by either 'sense perceptible' or 'correspondence'.
    >>
    >> Thus, there is no call for you to ask *me* whether I deny the existence of
    >> 'sense perceptible particulars', since I have no clear idea of what you
    > mean
    >> by the term, and rather good reasons for thinking that you mean nothing at
    >> all by it.
    >>
    >> Prove me wrong by successfully applying your 'insight and understanding'
    > v.
    >> 'physical sight' contrast to some actual examples of seeing.
    >>
    >>
    >> David R
    >>
    >>
    >>
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